First let me say that i dont really want to discuss the initial peel preflop. i know many ppl will say you play this hand and get in this spot blah blah i get it. This call pre is unorthodox for me (i would often 3b or fold, leaning towards fold) but im toying around with a few new strategies so yea. i know this topic has been covered before, but if i understand the spot correctly (possibly i dont) this is a very standard call given action correct? I think utg has AA nearly every time, or some very good KK combos/Akkx. Obv the squeezer is calling off everytime here given stack depth, so essentially im calling 560 to win 1065 with extremely clear visibility and (i think?) a hand that flops well enough. In previous examples of this spot, ive seen the argument that calling with any 4 card combo (presumably one with an ace would be the only exception) is fine because youll always have enough equity vs the assigned range of UTG. My hand has 40% equity vs AA only range and given pot odds here, i need 34.5% to call. Based on that, im assuming this is +EV but i just wanted a more thorough understanding to be sure, because even if im correct that its +EV, im not sure how to calculate exactly by how much, or if it is at all considering there is still money behind. Thanks so much in advance for any responses!
1) Are all of the above assumptions correct?
2) Is the play +EV pf? If so, is it quantifiable in terms of BB, and if so, by how much?