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Posted by posted in Gen. Poker


Hi All,

I encountered the concept of MDF in a few videos, but have a problem with it:
It was explained that if, for example, Button raises to 2.5bb (no ante) and SB folds, then the MDF for BB is 1-2.5/4=37.5%, because if BB folds more than 37.5%, the Button will make an immediate profit by raising ATC.

However, I think this is a rather narrow way to look at this spot since it disregards postflop play - if BB defends more narrow than the MDF, Button may make profit pre flop, but when BB does defend (with a narrower and stronger range) he is expected to have better EV and therefore profit more postflop, compensating the loss preflop.

Am I missing something?

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