Can somone explain to me why the solver chooses large flop bet sizes here at 70% frequency? It's betting about 95% pot
(BB 3 bet vs UTG open and call.)
From BB's pov
My first guess is nut advantage on a board where UTG has no sets or 2 pair.
I was wondering if give the choice of even bigger bet sizes, if the solver would choose to overbet?
This just seems like such a wild output.