I have a question about gto preflop range that everyone is talkin about today...(basically being pokersnowie's range)
Lets take that 6 max preflop range....How is that considered GTO? Isit considered GTO only when its being applied against completely identical ranges. Or is it considered GTO against ANY range?
Its an extremely tight range.
GTO means being unexploitable right, well if everyone is playing THAT tight a range at our table why cant we just loosen up to the point the table isnt defending our raises/and reraises enough be it preflop or postflop? Am I being naive that the numbers wont allow ME to loosen up to that point to be able to do that against a table of 5 others (since so many opponents) even though their ranges are that TIGHT?
Or, no, I am correct and players who loosen up just enough to the correct point could exploit them...Its just that-that pokersnowie range is a suggested GTO range because thats what generally the mass population at 6 max plays today???
(( Tho would seem hard to believe that the overwhelming majority of the reg population is playing that range all the way from low stakes to high stakes.))
What Am I Missing?
Thank you all as im really tryin to learn about solvers lately and will be purchasing one very very soon