Pre-flop calling range vs LAG 5bet

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Pre-flop calling range vs LAG 5bet

Hi all! I have a question about the following hand which I played in a home cash game.

Hero is in the BB, Villain is in the BTN. Villain is a good player, but is playing a bit loose, opening many hands and with large sizes even in late positions. Also, Hero has previously bluffed Villain with a pre-flop 3bet which made him fold a better hand: this gives Hero the impression that Villain has become a bit looser against him, over-bluffing his range. The stack sizes are approximately 150 BB (Hero) and 230 BB (Villain).

Villain (JJ) opens with 7.5 BB, SB folds, Hero (QcJc) raises to 25 BB, Villain reraises to 75 BB, Hero calls.
Flop is 9cTcKc, Hero checks, Villain checks.
Turn is Ad, Hero bets about half-pot (40 BB), Villain calls.
River is 10s, Hero goes all-in for 35 BB, Villain folds.

The opening by Villain is too large, which makes him much polarized. The way he played makes me suspect he has too many bluffs in his range, so he's not very well balanced. I decide to go polarized as well and reraise AA, QQ, JJ, TT, 99, AKs, AQs, QKs, AKo, QJs for value. Here, Villain is a bit "telly" and seems to not appreciate the reraise -- anyway, I think I'd have played the hand almost identically even without this tell. So he reraises once again to a large size, which makes him even more polarized. I think this makes little sense: if I had AA, KK, QQ, or AKs, which I likely have, he'd be in a very bad shape. He should've simply called instead, or maybe fold. Given that Villain's stack is deep and his range may have more air than it should've, I decide to call, even though I'm aware it's a close one; I'd prefer to have KQs, AJs or KJs here, or similar hands, and I'd call QJs only a small percentage of the time (~20% maybe). But in this situation, against Villain's (careless?) aggression, his history, and everything, I felt this was a call with very good implied odds.

I got a lucky flop, and the rest of the hand played itself I think. The turn call by Villain was very very wrong (I have A, K, flushes, sets, everything), and his river fold is right.

What do you think of this hand? With what range should I have called Villain's 5bet? Was my call with QJs too loose? Thanks!

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