Piechta's avatar


0 points

Indeed, my reasoning for river does little sense, as I think about it right now. But when playing this hand, it somehow made sense to me :)
Probably typical for rather low-experienced player, to have some thoughts when playing, that are easily revised when analyzing hands after the game.
Once more thanks!

July 13, 2021 | 12:04 p.m.

This is my first thread, so thanks in advance for your review. BTW - any idea how to enter hand history for review from GGpoker? Hand history converter does not seem to work here at RIO for GGpoker

Blinds: $0.25/$0.50 (6 Players)
SB: $74.09 (Hero)
BB: $33.59
UTG: $50.34
MP: $34.99
CO: $66.93 Villain [tight aggressive reg]**
BN: $41.76
($0.75) Hero is SB with [Kd As]]
CO raises 1.85, Hero 3bet 5.88, CO calls 4.03

($12.76) [3h Kh Qd]]
Hero bets $9.57, CO calls $9.57

($31.90) [3h Kh Qd 2c]]
Hero bets $23.93, CO calls $23.93

($79.76) [3h Kh Qd 2c Td]]
Hero bets $35.56 (all-in), CO calls $27.55

CO shows [9h Jh]]
CO wins $134.86

As a 3better I felt like having advantage with this flop, but still it was quite wet, so decided to c-bet 75% of the pot, to prevent Villain draws - I think that within his range, there is only one combo beating me (KQ) as QQ/KK would be 4bet, while 33 is rather fold for him.
Shall I bet more to make him his calling non profitable, or was my bet size fine? Was he fine to call considering he had 12 outs (flush draw + gutter)?

I might have checked river, but I guess he would bet anyway - [Td] was a good card to make a bluff at the river, so my bet was to prevent him potentially bluffing and making me wonder if I shall call with my bluff catcher [Kd].
I knew he was drawing, but considering that [Td] was a good card only for gutter, I felt like this was a good decision to go all-in OTR.

July 13, 2021 | 7:18 a.m.

Post | Piechta posted in Courses Forum: Bet sizing special - Over bet example

Hi guys,

In episode 12: bet sizing special, from the ground up - the example for "over bet" is as follows:

H: Bets with 76s
V: calls

Flop 8x8z5x

H: 40% c-bet
V: Call

Turn: 3z

And this is meant to be a good turn to over bet with explanation, that Villain would 3-bet flop with 8. I do not get it much - isn't 8, at such flop really good "trap"? Why would we assume that Villain would 3bet our c-bet on flop with 8?

Thanks in advance for the answer - I am totally new to RIO so forgive me if the question is silly one.
Good luck at tables!

June 24, 2021 | 7:37 p.m.

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