GTO Warrior thanks a lot for your explanation, everything is much clearer now! Still, I'm aware of the pre-flop concepts of polar 3betting and polar 4betting (see FTGU by Peter Clarke), which, I assume, may be based on the relatively small, but existing, equity disparity between, e.g., AA and A2s. I guess that I just cannot talk about "polarized open", but I can say "polarized 3bet, 4bet, etc."!
Aug. 18, 2021 | 8:41 a.m.
I see your points, and I agree, but I'm interested in this hand mainly because Villain was a winning online NLH player before he retired about ten years ago, and he knows I'm an amateur poker player. Thus, I was interested in the correct line to be followed In this spot.
To summarize: either 3bet and fold to 4bet (engine approved) or just call (human approved).
Aug. 17, 2021 | 11:51 p.m.
Thank you GTO Warrior! You're right, I shouldn't say he's opening polarized, but I'd better say he's opening a very wide range that includes many trash hands; the large sizing made me think he either has it or he doesn't: is this reasoning correct? Then, again, I'm expecting him to be very polarized with his 4bets, so I called with the hope of either out-flopping him, or at least making him fold with some bluff on later streets.
As a bonus question, if the tell I spotted is reliable, i.e., Villain isn't at the top of his range when he 4bets (he has no AA, AKs, KK, QQ, AQs, etc.), is calling with QJs correct, or should I just jam and hope for the best?
Aug. 17, 2021 | 2:11 p.m.
But should I fold even knowing Villain is often over-bluffing? Was the 3bet such a bad choice knowing I was OOP against a range with so much air? Also, I'd be grateful if you could elaborate a bit more about the ranges I should've adopted against Villain!
P.S.: I forgot to mention that 100 BB = 10 $.
Aug. 17, 2021 | 11 a.m.
Hi all! I have a question about the following hand which I played in a home cash game.
Hero is in the BB, Villain is in the BTN. Villain is a good player, but is playing a bit loose, opening many hands and with large sizes even in late positions. Also, Hero has previously bluffed Villain with a pre-flop 3bet which made him fold a better hand: this gives Hero the impression that Villain has become a bit looser against him, over-bluffing his range. The stack sizes are approximately 150 BB (Hero) and 230 BB (Villain).
Villain (JJ) opens with 7.5 BB, SB folds, Hero (QcJc) raises to 25 BB, Villain reraises to 75 BB, Hero calls.
Flop is 9cTcKc, Hero checks, Villain checks.
Turn is Ad, Hero bets about half-pot (40 BB), Villain calls.
River is 10s, Hero goes all-in for 35 BB, Villain folds.
MY BRIEF ANALYSIS
The opening by Villain is too large, which makes him much polarized. The way he played makes me suspect he has too many bluffs in his range, so he's not very well balanced. I decide to go polarized as well and reraise AA, QQ, JJ, TT, 99, AKs, AQs, QKs, AKo, QJs for value. Here, Villain is a bit "telly" and seems to not appreciate the reraise -- anyway, I think I'd have played the hand almost identically even without this tell. So he reraises once again to a large size, which makes him even more polarized. I think this makes little sense: if I had AA, KK, QQ, or AKs, which I likely have, he'd be in a very bad shape. He should've simply called instead, or maybe fold. Given that Villain's stack is deep and his range may have more air than it should've, I decide to call, even though I'm aware it's a close one; I'd prefer to have KQs, AJs or KJs here, or similar hands, and I'd call QJs only a small percentage of the time (~20% maybe). But in this situation, against Villain's (careless?) aggression, his history, and everything, I felt this was a call with very good implied odds.
I got a lucky flop, and the rest of the hand played itself I think. The turn call by Villain was very very wrong (I have A, K, flushes, sets, everything), and his river fold is right.
What do you think of this hand? With what range should I have called Villain's 5bet? Was my call with QJs too loose? Thanks!