I'm not sure I understand the example for the Overbet and why we have a range advantage vs. VIllain.
We have 7s6s on the cutoff, raise to 2.5BB, called by Tough Reg on the BB.
Flop comes 8h 8c 5d. Villain checks, we bet about 35% of pot. VIllain calls.
Turn comes 3c, so board is now 8h 8c 5d 3c, and video says we have a super polarized range here and uncapped vs villain. So we bet 12BB into a 9BB pot?
I don't understand how we are so uncapped vs. villain's capped range. Surely he has lots of 8x combos in his hand, more so than we do? If we did have such a polarized range on the flop, wouldn't we have bet like 2/3 to pot on the flop and employed a selective bet strategy?
Also this is kind of arbitrary but why wouldnt we just bet pot here on the turn, why does it need to be an overbet? Seems not worth it as we don't gain much extra fold equity anyway?