phillocos

Dear all,

I am really confused and need some help (especially when Peter says "Villains range is uncapped as he MAY play ´call only´" in the second example).

When is Villain’s range considered capped or uncapped? It seems that their range can be uncapped whether they call or raise, so what is the exact criterion?

1. I originally thought that Villain’s range is always capped when they only call, but the image suggests that they can call and still be uncapped. Or is Villain only capped when their strategy allows for a raising range and they don’t build one?

2. Is the key factor whether the turn is a blank or a game-changer rather than whether Villain calls or not?

3. Does the blank/game-changer criterion only apply when Villain raises the flop, or does it also matter when they always call?

4. How does this relate to the in-position (IP) strategy of only calling versus the out-of-position (OOP) strategy of sometimes raising?

5. What are the clear, definitive criteria that determine whether a range is capped or uncapped in these specific examples?

To the last point of the image concerning the capped vs uncapped range with the hand examples (bluffs that unblock strong better hands), Peter says in the video: "you want to run into the stuff that will fold: when unblocking the strong better hands it means that you are blocking more of the weaker hands that would call your overbet (does Peter mean "fold to your overbet" instead of "call" here?) but not your modest bet (when you're bluffing with a modest bet, you will get called by some weaker hands, so it is good to block some weaker hands, which on turn (un)block strong better hands, which is why you keep the bluff modest"

1. Why unblock strong better hands?

2. I understand why it is good to overbet vs a capped range. But would it not be better as a general rule to bet modest vs an uncapped and bet big vs a capped range?

Thank you for your support and success for your journey!