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# Floor ruling - out of turn - forced to call someone's all in

River (\$800) Ad Kd 5c 6c 2d
Seat 1 (\$1,200) QdJd is thinking of what to do.
Seat 2 (\$2,000) JdTs bets \$600 out of turn.
Seat 1 calls time and says "I haven't acted yet."
Seat 1 now bets \$200.

From my understanding this is a change of action. However, at BAY101 ruling is seat 2 is forced to raise to \$600 still. If Seat 1 bet more than half of the bet say \$400, seat 2 is forced to call the \$400. If seat 1 bet \$605, seat 2 now has an option to take his / her bet back because the bet amount is more than what he was trying to bet.

Example 2
Drunk guy acts out of turn on the before the flop and says all in for \$500. Dealer says it's not his turn yet. Seat 1 now bets \$25, seat 2 3bets to \$100, seat 3 goes all in for \$400. BAY101 is saying the drunk guy still has to go all in because his all in is more than any action that happened before him.

What is the point of having a rule of "bet stands unless action changes?" The rule does not say "bet stands unless a player raises to a great amount than what you raised.

Extreme example playing \$10/\$20 and you are \$10k deep and 3 other players have between 5k-9k. You act out of turn and say all in on the river with a missed flush draw and only have 4d3d on 2d5dJcKc8Js board. Even if all 3 players go all in, you are forced to call all in with 4 high because you have more chips than they do.

Does this make any sense? I understand they want to "punish" the player for acting out of turn, so they do not "angle" people. Bay101 interpretation of this rule is ludicrous though. When a player acts out of turn "action stands unless a player before raises to a greater amount than the out of turn player." Even if it goes 2 bet - 3 bet - 4 bet - 5 bet - 6 bet etc. If the 6th bet is less than the out of turn player's all in, he is still forced to go all in.

Do other casinos rule the same way?