# pocktdeuces

1 points

Hand 1:
\$1300 effective.
Only capable player raises to \$35 in the CO, I 3 bet to \$120 OTB with AK. Blinds fold.

Pot: \$255

Flop: 2h4d5c
CO checks. I?

I think checking and better are both fine? I think betting with AK might be better because it can get called by AQ or AJ. But I checked.

Turn: 3h
CO checks. I check

River: As
Villain bets \$450. What's the math behind a call?

So let X = the chances that villain has a 6 high straight or better.

-\$450*X + (1-X)((\$450 + 450 + 255) / 2 )=0
577.5 - 577.5x = 450x
577.5 - 575x = 450x
577.5 = 1025x
x = 577.5/1025
x = 56.3%

So this seems high and I think I did something wrong? So I need to tie at least 100 -56.3 or 46% of the time right?

### May 30, 2015 | 1:19 a.m.

Where did you get 79.5 from at 12:07? Also, 70% of \$137 is 95.9 right and not 96.25?

### May 28, 2015 | 4:08 p.m.

Where did we get \$62 preflop from at like 9:13? Is it a raise to 22.5 from the CO? So if we call from the BB there is 22.5 + 22.5 + 5 in the pot or \$50 in the pot?

### May 22, 2015 | 6:31 p.m.

Great stuff as always, Ben.

I don't know what your flop XR/C distribution looks like here, especially since you noted that you were playing exploitively, but with <2 pots behind, I was wondering if you think it make sense to employ an overjamming range when the turn goes check/check and the river bricks?

If so it seems like that would further diminish the merit of having a turn leading range.